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I know there's been some time spent on this already, so I'm sorry to re-visit, but I'm having trouble understanding one thing:
On page 41 of the annual report (at the bottom) it states:
"Finance lease receivables are recognised at the present value of the minimum lease payments less impairment losses. The present value is calculated by discounting the minimum lease payments due, at the interest rate implicit in the lease."
So first, they provision what they deem suitable.
Then, the amount expected to receive in each year by the interest rate implied in the finance lease.
So, using some solid numbers:
If the repayment in the 2 years time (e.g. FY18) totaled $600 and the interest rate on the lease is 25%, this is discounted to get the net present value, being $384 (600/(1.25^2))
Ignoring the effect of the year 1 repayment - does this mean that the book value of the loan will increase by 25% when we hit the next financial year? By this I mean, will the book value of the loan then increase because we're only discounting for 1 year, rather than two?
(i.e. it becomes 600/1.25 = $480)
I thought it was just recognized as interest revenue in the year it was received, rather than increasing the value of the book every year...
EDIT: I'm assuming this relates to the "Unearned Income" on finance leases.
On page 41 of the annual report (at the bottom) it states:
"Finance lease receivables are recognised at the present value of the minimum lease payments less impairment losses. The present value is calculated by discounting the minimum lease payments due, at the interest rate implicit in the lease."
So first, they provision what they deem suitable.
Then, the amount expected to receive in each year by the interest rate implied in the finance lease.
So, using some solid numbers:
If the repayment in the 2 years time (e.g. FY18) totaled $600 and the interest rate on the lease is 25%, this is discounted to get the net present value, being $384 (600/(1.25^2))
Ignoring the effect of the year 1 repayment - does this mean that the book value of the loan will increase by 25% when we hit the next financial year? By this I mean, will the book value of the loan then increase because we're only discounting for 1 year, rather than two?
(i.e. it becomes 600/1.25 = $480)
I thought it was just recognized as interest revenue in the year it was received, rather than increasing the value of the book every year...
EDIT: I'm assuming this relates to the "Unearned Income" on finance leases.