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????
Only a small part of it (ie the difference between cash received and the WDV) most of it is to do with transferring PPE to cost of financial lease sales. which is basically an early depreciation of the PPE to the eventual sale price of $1 under the financial lease.
Unless of course I’m wrong. – an I wrong?
No you're right, I thought it referred to something on the cash flow statement. I'm feeling a little like death warmed up today, flu + food poisoning. Back to bed I go.