Bill M
Self Funded Retiree
- Joined
- 4 January 2008
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Everytime there is a correction or a market crash our market gets hit almost twice as hard as the US market, why does this happen?
Some examples, in current correction we are down 25% and the US market is down about 16% from it's all time highs.
In 1987 during the sharemarket crash ours went down 41.8% and the US market went down 22.8%.
Is there any reason why we get hit hit twice as hard as the Americans?
Some examples, in current correction we are down 25% and the US market is down about 16% from it's all time highs.
In 1987 during the sharemarket crash ours went down 41.8% and the US market went down 22.8%.
Is there any reason why we get hit hit twice as hard as the Americans?