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View attachment 97701
The Problem - circled in red
1. The CAM Portfolio has all 25 positions in the markets
2. Having all positions in the markets with one pending sell leaves no room for re-balancing
3. The accumulated idle funds plus a sell with a large open profit will need to be put to work
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View attachment 97703
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The Issue - (circled in red)
After 9 weeks the "CAM Portfolio" has had a great run with closed profits leaving limited re-balancing options. All of the 25 positions are currently in the market with only one sell pending.
Excess Funds
The CAM Portfolio has accumulated net profits of $41,781 leaving uncommitted funds sitting idle. To utilise those funds I have decided to open another three $16K positions, taking the position size from 25 to 28 positions.
Skate.
So you are modifying your rules. Essentially you are saying that, 'I know better than my system'. If this element of discretion falls within the design, well and good. If it does not, then it is a failure of discipline.
Idle funds in a bull market are a drag on returns.
Idle funds in a bear (or approaching bear) are a godsend.
Which is it?
Nobody knows.
Was this a factor that was tested? If not, why not. If yes, what did the testing suggest?
jog on
duc
IMH Duc's right. A 25 position system is 25 positions.
Here's the code - SetOption("MaxOpenPositions", 25 );
If you want to change it, that's your prerogative.
you end up with a virtual profit in your portfolio but sell one code at a loss
when you want to buy the next parcel there is no hard cash in your system
How do your systems handle this?
Similarly one of my system was fully invested and had 2 sell and so 2 buys today. But i had to manually scramble at 10:15am once the cash from my sell at open was in before ordering the 2 buy, now on the market chasing price until completion of order
Do you guys keep a cash buffer? - And if so how much as this is indeed dead money? - Your knowledgeable opinion welcome
Bell direct does not allow me this@qldfrog by trading in the pre-auction this is not a concern with CommSec's (T2) settlement as it's pure mathematics. (simple maths at that)
Trading in the pre-auction (+/- 3% premium)
1. Buy positions - the maximum dollar cost is know if the +3% premium is fully exercised. (usually it isn't)
2. Sell positions - the minimum dollar value income is known if the -3% premium is fully exercised. (usually it isn't)
My re-balancing works in this manner
Trading Bank balance - known
Maximum Buy cost (expense) - known
Minimum Sell value (income) - known
Easy Formula
Bank balance + Sell (income) value - Buy cost (expense) / outstanding positions to purchase = Dollar position sizing. With this formula every trading dollar set aside for the strategy is in the markets fighting the good fight. (well that's the plan)
No need to wait
As it's pure mathematics & with a (T2) settlement period there is no need to wait. If your calculations are incorrect you have a "2 day grace period" to correct the mistake - liquidate the worst position held for extra funds if needed.
If worried
If your trading account is borderline & you require sells to cover purchases - Don't buy this week, wait until the funds are in the Bank & plan the buys for next week once the funds are available - a one week delay will not alter your trading results "over time"
Skate.
Hi, your weekly average calc for the cam strategy looks wrong
@kid hustlr $33,805 / 9 weeks = $3,756 Average looks ok
Good one Kid, I think Skate wouldn't qualify as an institutional trader, so you might have to lower your rates to individual retail trader levelHappy to be the qualified auditor for this thread skate.
My understanding is institutional accounting rates vary from 600-1500 an hour based on levels of experience.
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