skc
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So what are those qualitatives.
Does having a good vibe from qualitatives give confidence in estimates pulled together in an hour?
Let's not get personal.
Good to have insight into the workings of those who manages our nation's retirement security and savings...
I thought I was asking legitimate questions.
You've been arguing the need to forecast and project... I thought those are hard things to get right but others with better brains and effort could do it...
So what are those qualitatives.
I think it'd be quite interesting to know how analysis of qualitative stuff could give you guys confidence in forecasting that company C will grow earnings by 5.24254325% next year, then 5.63452125842% the year after, then 3.12451% constantly; that interest rates will be this and that and that etc. etc.
Does having a good vibe from qualitatives give confidence in estimates pulled together in an hour?
...
SKC is fresh to the conversation. I refer you to him. Like McLovin, he's top shelf stuff on many matters.
The entity which wrote the prior entry which you are referring to has no idea which was is up or down. Any resemblance to you is purely coincidental and unintended. Nonetheless it could still be you.
The system continues to enjoy the benefits of your financial contribution into the markets as negative expected alpha. Give 'til it hurts. It's even tax deductible.
Thinking doesn't make it so.
Better brains and effort requires a basis of comparison to be meaningful. The sentence structure implies the reference basis is you. If so, then a resounding "yes" they can do it.
I don't know. What exactly are "qualitatives"? Is that the term for when someone mistakes growth for RoE? Or is unable to discern growth from discount rate in a Gordon model? And yet wants to critique it in this fashion? Don't know it. Never had to learn it.
It's more than the vibe. It's the Constitution. It's the Mabo. When we have those, it actually takes about 10 minutes if you aren't building the template from scratch. If we don't have the Mabo, it takes about 30 mins. If we don't have the Constitution or the Mabo then, yes, the full hour is needed to obtain sufficient confidence. Gaining confidence generally consists of repeating "I can do it!" over and over whilst listening to an Anthony Robbins recording. Just before placing the trade, we walk over hot coals to prove our confidence.
SKC is fresh to the conversation. I refer you to him. Like McLovin, he's top shelf stuff on many matters.
OK, so you don't know. You just pick and choose the best models to go with a consensus, depending on the mood and market sentiment....
[Stuff]
It just show you haven't a clue how your models work.
[Stuff]
....If a company I own "grows" its earnings in size, but returns a lower percentage on my investment, can that company still be said to be growing? According to you it has grown, according to my simple math, I put more cash into the business and making a lower return for my trouble.
....Put it simpler, if I had $100 in the bank and earn $10 a year; I kept that $10 in the same account and add in another $20... next year I got $11 in return... is that $11 a $1 gain (growth) or a $2 loss?
[Stuff]
...Much sounder than plugging in endless assumptions and get it precisely wrong.
Hi everyone,
I was just passing through after a bit of an absence and noticed this interesting thread.
There was something relevant to perpetuity formulas that I was pondering recently and haven't been able to solve.
Can someone mathematically inclined tell me how (if it is possible) to convert a perpetuity to an equivalent "growth" cash flow series with duration (say for any period eg. 5, 10, 20 years)? NPV / IRR should be the same on both.
Martin Liebowitz touches on this in one of his books (Franchise value), but I've never been able to understand the maths.
Hi RY,Ves, it's absolutely wonderful to hear from you again.
Which page(s) of the book are you referring to?
Best wishes
RY
So laugh at its simplicity...
... You know how absurd it is to have a bunch of different models to measure the one thing? ...
DEFINITION OF 'INTRINSIC VALUE'
1. The actual value of a company or an asset based on an underlying perception of its true value including all aspects of the business, in terms of both tangible and intangible factors. This value may or may not be the same as the current market value. Value investors use a variety of analytical techniques in order to estimate the intrinsic value of securities in hopes of finding investments where the true value of the investment exceeds its current market value.
Investors are like Train Controllers. They love to compare sizes!
Hi RY,
Are you familiar with the book?
If you are, you may know his whole method is based on TV (tangible value of current earnings) + FV (franchise value of future known opportunities) = EV (enterprise value). This can also be converted into an adjusted P/E ratio.
This method should only be used for firms with a competitive advantage (adjustments can be made for return fade).
The TV component is a perpetuity (Earnings / discount rate).
FV is an equivalent growth perpetuity. It is basically the estimated NPV of the investments a firm can deploy into future opportunities at a profitability (ROIC) margin above the firm's cost of capital (COC) multiplied by a "Franchise factor"." These can happen across any time-frame, so using this approach you are circumnavigating the need to estimate the precise timing of the firm's profitable growth. In a way it's a book value multiple proxy for estimated future firm investments based on incremental ROIC. But you do need to be careful, the ROIC spread above COC will increase the multiplier exponentially.
On pg 124 he starts discussing the concept of a "duration based approximation." The concept makes sense to me, but the maths doesn't. He is comparing the FV equivalent growth perpetuity to a duration based investment. Say an alternate investment with the same NPV as the FV (above) earning 20% for 10 years or 15% for 20 years.
The maths is in appendix 4. I'm afraid it loses me.
Unlike most investors, Buffett did not create a model of the business. In fact, based on going through pretty much all of Buffett’s files, Schroder never saw that Buffett had created a model of a business.
Instead, Buffett thought like a horse handicapper. He isolated the one or two factors upon which the success of Mid American hinged. In this case, sales growth and cost advantage.
He then laid out the quarterly data for these factors for all of Mid Continent’s factories and those of its competitors, as best he could determine it, on sheets of a legal pad and intently studied the data.
He established his hurdle of a 15% return and asked himself if he could get it based on the company’s 36% profit margins and 70% growth. It was a simple yes or no decision and he determined that he could get the 15% return so he invested.
According to Schroder, 15% is what Buffett wants from day 1 on an investment and then for it to compound from there.
This is how Buffett does a discounted cash flow. There are no discounted cash flow models. Buffett simply looks at detailed long-term historical data and determines, based on the price he has to pay, if he can get at least a 15% return. (This is why Charlie Munger has said he has never seen Buffett do a discounted cash flow model.)
There was a big margin of safety in the numbers of Mid Continent.
Buffett invested $60,000 of personal money or about 20% of his net worth. It was an easy decision for him. No projections – only historical data.
He held the investment for 18 years and put another $1 million into the business over time. The investment earned 33% over the 18 years.
Thanks RYI am now.
Yep. Needed a couple of coffees. This has some similarities to the processes created by HOLT Value Associates which is now owned by Credit Suisse.
More coffee. This was excruciating.
I think you might have become gummed up on pp. 277-278. These require an understanding of chicanery called the Taylor series expansion and another bond concept called Macaulay Duration.
I can take you through that, but this is basically an EVA valuation wrapped in a ton of maths and concepts that are not likely to be used in practice. They are simply unintuitive from a valuation perspective although the maths works out.
The basic concept here is that, when you allow different rates of return for different investments rather than assuming a uniform return, a firm's value consists of TV and then the combined value of a bunch of projects with different rates of return in perpetuity (which is the equivalent of the value of the actual project) which are then multiplied by a weird factor (FF) to help derive a P/E multiple contribution. The FF itself is adjusted for the duration of the perpetuity! That's gymnastics.
If you had the information necessary to produce the inputs, it's still much more visible and intuitive to conduct an EVA (or straight NPV). It would require less transformations for a project cashflow into perpetuity equivalents and duration adjustments to the FF to give it value. Just calculate the EVA at k for each project and value them! Or just value the total cashflow as per standard FCF. If you apply these methods, all the maths will then adjust those into a theoretically equivalent but less intuitive outcome and then give you the same result.
Thanks RY
Liebowitz was at Salomon Brothers for along time if I recall. He's now at Morgan Stanley. Has worked or had relationships with a lot of the big firms on the Street.
The real reason that I am pursuing the mathematical gymnastics behind these concepts is that knowing the ins-and-outs allows me not only to understand them better, but to modify them on a situational basis, where required.
Looks like I have some more reading to do. I will follow up on the Taylor series and the Macaulay Duration when I get a chance. Beware, I'm pretty slow to absorb this stuff sometimes, so I might take a while to ask any questions.
The approach that he discusses in his book clicked with me in the way that the formula is presented. You are essentially arriving at the same thing (an NPV) but the formula forces you to focus on two things: sustainable return from existing assets, potential return from future opportunities. It's flexible in the fact that the two are separable, and it fits right in with my big picture thinking on competitive advantage.... where I try to look at things in terms of long-term cycles, not the year-by-year estimation that often puts people off DCF.
Maybe this is the wrong word... but I find it more intuitive than other valuation models. The need for exact precision in models is a form of fear, our deep worry that we will be wrong and cannot control the future outcome. You still need to make judgments and big picture assumptions - there's no getting around that. But I feel as if this model allows me to move away from stressing over the "minor details" (like how much capital will be invested in year 5) Which I believe galumay and a few others have expressed concern about. That book was a real lightbulb moment for me and fits exactly to my style of thinking (especially that not everything goes up and down in a straight line, in a routine fashion like you see in so many models).
However, as Liebowitz says, no matter the valuation method, it's only based on known possibilities. It's the unknown, unseeable upside and downside that you cannot write into any model.
RY,
What are your thoughts on these comments from the Alice Schroeder video, excerpt/summary taken from http://gregspeicher.com/?p=65 :
Do you not believe what she says about how Bufffet values a business?
Hi RY,
Had a quick look at Economic Value Added (EVA) on the Stern business site (Aswath Damodaran).
The most basic formula is (ROIC - COC) x New Investments. To make it a perpetuity you simply divide by the required return.
The franchise factor (FF) from Liebowitz (without modifiers) as I understand it is very similar: (ROIC - COC) / Discount Rate. You then multiply this by the new investments.
The major difference that you seem to be pointing out is that you can use EVA on both a time frame basis and a perpetual basis (Liebowitz also has a section to factor in return fade etc and returns under leverage, which modifies the formula).
Would I be correct in saying that both of these methods are really the same thing with slight modifications to suit the situation by adding whatever mathematically gymnastics you need?
Cheers
Fixed for you, Burglar.
Which part did you fix ... exactly?
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