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Thanks luutzu, great post and insight into your investment process.
When you work out forecast earnings for the next 12 months, to what extent do you generally find your figure differs from 1 year consensus forecast normalised earnings/EPS figures quoted on online broker websites?
Personally though, in the interests of simplicity in valuation approach I am still leaning towards using 1 year forecast consensus normalised EPS for the E in the IV = E/r formula.
Personally though, in the interests of simplicity in valuation approach I am still leaning towards using 1 year forecast consensus normalised EPS for the E in the IV = E/r formula.
This is just a terminal value formula that assumes zero growth. Have you played around seen what happens at various risk levels or if you add 1-2% growth? It kind of shows up the pointlessness of that formula.
Also, those one touch formulas are prone to extrapolating the good times in a boom and the bad times in a bust.
t... But if it was well managed, if its management had made more intelligent decisions than poor ones,...
I have been thinking about this criteria a bit lately, I am not sure that its not better to look for bad management being able to make good profits - if you pick companies with really good management making good profits, there is always a risk that management will change to less good or just make some poor decisions and profitibility will suffer.
On the other hand a really badly managed business that is very profitible has more 'risk' of management changing for the better!
I look at companies like RIO, which is probably the most incompetently managed company I have ever had a close association with , and say TLS which has suffered massively from poor management - yet both have managed to make squillions of dollars and deliver real wealth to shareholders.
Its a bit counterintuitive but maybe I need to filter for poor management/high EPS
True that it assumes zero growth, but that's the point though.
Well, I guess we disagree. I always thought a valuation should have some modicum of reality in it.
Doing such estimates under various scenarios and there is no need to assume x% growth in the future. It is already expected to grow by at least the rate r that you required into eternity. The future might proved it exceed or decline from that requirement... if exceed, the business is worth more etc.
Personally I dont like using any forecasts, when I am using earnings in calculations I only use previous year earnings and I adjust that if its not in line with historical growth.
This is just a terminal value formula that assumes zero growth. Have you played around seen what happens at various risk levels or if you add 1-2% growth? It kind of shows up the pointlessness of that formula.
Also, those one touch formulas are prone to extrapolating the good times in a boom and the bad times in a bust.
When I looked at purchasing a small business I got my accountant to do a valuation.
To do so he looked at current year earnings, as well as the last 3 years history of earnings, made some adjustments for items that were unlikely to appear in the next year (but without extrapolating and forecasting the next year's earnings figure as I am by using forecast consensus EPS figures) to come up with a figure for future maintainable earnings, then divided this figure by the required rate of return (which was largely based on recent comparable industry sales).
If this sort of approach is often used to value small businesses, why can't it be used for listed companies?
It isn't expected to grow by r. R is the required return.
Grow for me by at least r, into infinity. Grow or at least maintain its return on equity.
That's not growth. I think you need to understand how those formulas work, because it seems like you don't really understand them at all.
$x/r will deliver you $x and not a cent more for inifinity. You will still be getting your required "r", because if you buy something for $100 paying $10 then you'll get your 10% return as long as it earns $10. So in the case of CBA, CBA will be earning $5.50 in 10, 20, 30, 50, 100, ∞. With inflation running at 2-3% you are going backward in real terms. That's why I don't see the point of using such a method of valuation. But anyway, you do what you like.
How realistic do you think it is that CBA will never, ever grow earnings? Inflation is 2-3% year, so using a no growth model assumes that over time CBA's earning will continue to fall in real terms.
I see what you are saying McLovin, but my interpretation is that with this approach the valuation in practical terms is made for a particular point in time only, and not meant to include x number of years of growth into the future at y% pa, as luutzu also describes.
Though indirectly you can factor this in by using a slightly lower required rate of return to express a degree of confidence in the future growth prospects of the business.
All valuations are for a point in time. We wish to know what a company is worth right now in order to assess if it is trading cheap/expensive/fair right now. The discussion is about methodology for assessment.
Capitalising current earnings is, broadly, a reasonable thing to do. It's the assumptions beneath it that matter a great deal because so much hangs off the Earnings / FCF / Dividends that are capitalized.
If you are going to use a multiple of E/FCF/D approach, you will be using what is called the Gordon Growth model, ultimately. As McLovin and I have pointed out, the gap between the growth rate of the E/FCF/D and the required rate of return is the primary driver of valuation if you are going to do this.
If you want to hash earnings growth by saying there is no growth, it is an unrealistic portrayal of the vast bulk of companies. However, as you say, you can drop the required return figure such that, in total, the valuation doesn't change.
Is that a realistic thing to do? If CBA is expected to grow at a rate faster than inflation, but you assume zero growth, does the required return actually drop by the growth rate? Absolutely not. In general, you need a higher return to compensate you for risk when the growth rate is zero or negative unless it is just a cash box.
This is why adjustments to the discount rate which are made just to ape the lack of growth rate assumed is incorrect and are merely efforts to disguise an inaccuracy and force an artificial fit. This remains so if you have some notion of a fixed hurdle rate.
As McLovin said, valuations should try to reflect reality. Bending a capitalization formulation out of shape to allow for poor assumptions is not a move in this direction.
McLovin's approach is sound.
Thank you RY. Not having any formal training in accounting, this is really clarified the distinction between McLovin and Luutzu's approaches.
However... what is McLovin's (and your) approach? How do you attempt to factor in growth etc in your valuation?
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