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At some stage medicare funding is likely to be reduced IMO re:IVF.
HNY and greetings from Tokyo.
A man walks into a hotel lobby in Minato-ku and finds himself seated next to a long term investor.
Man: Konbanwa, Gaijin. I have infinite funds. I see you are a long term investor, impervious to drawdowns.
LTI: Indeed. I set off metal detectors at airports.
Man: Truly impressive.
LTI: So, why are we talking?
Man: Analysis of your trades has shown that you get 60% of your trades right and you have positive expectancy. That's truly incredible!
LTI: Indeed. I set off metal detectors at airports. It's a real hassle I tell you. Much easier to fly private.
Man: Ok then. I offer you a trade where I will take whatever is in your portfolio. Don't worry about it, I am a cousin of Kuroda, and we can print as much money is needed to support our pledge to you.
LTI: What?
Man: It gets better. I will match your 60% hit rate. I will create a coin which flips AWESOME 60% of the time and DRAWDOWN 40% of the time. Each time AWESOME comes up, I will increase your funds at the time by 90%.
LTI: Awesome.
Man: But, given this is investment, if DRAWDOWN comes up, I am going to take 90% of whatever is in your funds at the time.
LTI: Of course.
Man: So each time you do this, you have your majestic positive expectancy. You expect to make 0.9 x 0.6 - 0.9 x 0.4 = 18%. Almost as good as Buffett.
LTI: Yep, I'm about as good as Buffett, so that sounds right.
Man: But, what about those drawdowns, can you take them?
LTI: I invest for the long term. I set of metal detectors at airports. Drawdowns don't concern me.
Man: So, if we think of one coin flip as being a month's outcomes, we can do this maybe a couple of hundred times? Let's say 240? Twenty years equivalent? Compounding the entire portfolio each period, just like you would as a long term investor who doesn't need to worry about such things as living off cashflow from the portfolio.
LTI: You're going to need Kuroda to make good on all the money you will owe me in a few minutes. You're the dumbest schmuck I have ever come across and, as a rampant capitalist, am duty bound to lead Japan into another round of quantitative easing. OK. My funds have been transferred. Let's roll. Positive expectancy. Long term investment horizon. Impervious to drawdowns. You are screwed.
Man: (Pours Sake sitting in a hotel lobby at 1:00am Tokyo time). Let's roll.
What happens next?
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PPP basket (Sake, Espresso, Sushi) suggests that YEN is close to parity with AUD. I have no signal.
At any point if two trades in a row are wrong he has lost 99% of the equity figure at the time. Correct?risk of ruin is just about guaranteed
Mathematically the sequence of losses should prove irrelevant to the final outcome as it is the result of a series of multiplications. Provided 60% of the outcomes in the sample are wins then 18% profit will be the net result. This is may be an example of yet another sound theory that is prone to failure when when applied in the real world..
With a 60% win rate over 240 occurrences you are as likely as not to hit at least a losing streak of 6.
Loosing 90% of your account 6 times = 10%^6. So you have an average chance of drawing your account down to 0.0001% of whatever it was prior to the losing streak. (ie $1,000,000 becomes $1)
It’s a play on percentages. A 90% markdown requires a 1000% mark-up. If the man was offering you 10 fold each time you win to compensate for the 90% when you lose then you would actually have the an 18% expectancy.
With a 60% win rate over 240 occurrences you are as likely as not to hit at least a losing streak of 6.
Loosing 90% of your account 6 times = 10%^6. So you have an average chance of drawing your account down to 0.0001% of whatever it was prior to the losing streak. (ie $1,000,000 becomes $1)
It’s a play on percentages. A 90% markdown requires a 1000% mark-up. If the man was offering you 10 fold each time you win to compensate for the 90% when you lose then you would actually have the an 18% expectancy.
(1 /(1-0.9)) × 100Sorry to ask, but could you please post the math to get to the 18% expectancy? (i.e. how'd you figure out it was 1000%).
I'm failing to figure it out...
(1 /(1-0.9)) × 100
Sorry to ask, but could you please post the math to get to the 18% expectancy? (i.e. how'd you figure out it was 1000%).
I'm failing to figure it out...
Sorry Klogg you probably can’t make sense of it because it’s wrong – its only 900%. (quick posts on holidays - not always accurate - actually I'm just make most of this **** up so its probably all wrong)
The old mark-up / margin calculation.
Start $100 loose $90 = new capital of $10. Require $90 from $10 to regain position = 90/10 = 900%
Once you compensate for the geometric vs arithmetic effect the expectancy is generated solely by the 60% win rate.
1x.6 – 1*.4 = 20%
Its an extreme example of something that most should be aware of with their expectancy calculations but ....
Loss in original example on a geometric basis is 10 times bigger than the win. So expectancy that you gonna get in real life is 0.6*.9 – 0.4*9 =NEGATIVE 3.06 (give or take a bourbon or two)
Klogg, you're closer to the correct answer than craft this time. Remember, he is in holiday mode.
The expectancy in the story is actually POSITIVE 18%.
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