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Hi KTP,
Interesting analysis. A couple of points:
1. As you have pointed out the Z Score uses the Market Value of Equity in the calculation, I personally think the Private Business version of the Altman Z Score which uses the Book Value of Equity instead of Market Value of Equity is more suitable for some listed companies to remove the effect of market volatility/illiquidity on the results (i.e. ignore the market!). Note Altman did research into proving his Private Business (and Foreign Markets) version of the Altman Z Score and provides the results in the paper. Revisiting your calculations by applying the Private Business version of the Altman Z score might be an interesting exercise.
2. For me the paper took some digesting, but I came to the conclusion that the Z score is a useful tool for certain turnaround situations and it is interesting to see his checks 30+ years later to see how effective the original formula has been. IMO, selecting an appropriate Z score formula, careful selection of cut-off and trending the Z score over time can provide insight into a possible turnaround (note I found on the web a business academic recommending it as a management KPI tool).
Cheers
Oddson
Looks close to being fully-priced to me at 6.5-7x EBIT with a fairly high debt. No growth, no competitive advantage, shrinking industry with high capital requirements (looking at the historical numbers they are nearing the bottom of their lumpy capital cycle and there is more pain ahead). So agree with the comment about reasonable estimates of maintenance capex.OCF less a reasonable estimate for maintenance capex was negative this year. Reported FCF was massaged by the asset sale and lease back. Debt reduction was solely as a result of the assets sales.
I’m not saying with enough detailed analysis that a case for an adequate risk/reward investment doesn’t exist – I haven’t done the work.
Just saying this is no sure turn around bet – It’s a HIGH risk play. If that’s going to be your game you should recognise it in your rules and consider your risk management accordingly.
OCF less a reasonable estimate for maintenance capex was negative this year. Reported FCF was massaged by the asset sale and lease back. Debt reduction was solely as a result of the assets sales.
I’m not saying with enough detailed analysis that a case for an adequate risk/reward investment doesn’t exist – I haven’t done the work.
Just saying this is no sure turn around bet – It’s a HIGH risk play. If that’s going to be your game you should recognise it in your rules and consider your risk management accordingly.
From memory a lot of the Z sore factors have Total Assets as the denominator. Increasing Z scores based on improving profitability would have to be a lot more robust then an increasing score due to the company writing off good will and implementing asset sales and lease backs.
Looks close to being fully-priced to me at 6.5-7x EBIT with a fairly high debt. No growth, no competitive advantage, shrinking industry with high capital requirements (looking at the historical numbers they are nearing the bottom of their lumpy capital cycle and there is more pain ahead). So agree with the comment about reasonable estimates of maintenance capex.
Another one I could only value at net replacement cost of assets (after subtracting debt).
Hi Ves,
I think one of us made a bad calculation error. I have EBIT at $34.2m for 2013, with the current market cap of $115m, giving me 3.36x EBIT. At 7x EBIT, I would agree it is not a good investment.
EBIT is a before Interest measure. Depreciation is an accounting charge - potentially misleading if it doesn't corresponded with economically sustainable level of maintenance capex.Furthermore, current EBIT is obscured by restructuring, which I expect will improve EBIT. Just by reducing deprectiation+interest, if nothing else. An EBIT of $45m, which I forecast for next year puts it on 2.6x.
A competitive disadvantage deserves a discount to NTA if they reinvest capital into that business then the discount can not be large enough for a long term holder (the real reason I can't be bothered with this sort of investing)I agree with all your other points, except for competitive advantage. A high fixed cost, low margin business does not invite new competitors, so existing businesses can continues generating their (low) returns until the demand reduces to nil. Not the best kind of advantage to have, but an advantage nevertheless. Hmmmmm
Still, they are essentially protected by the fact that replacement cost of assets does not generate sufficient returns and therefore no sane person would start up a business to compete with them. Which would value them at even less than replacement value. I certainly don't envy those that supplied capital to PMP to acquire those assets in the first place.
But I can now acquire those assets at a massive discount to replacement value.
P.S. A quick note about capital expense cycle as well. Looking at historical numbers may be misleading - while cap expense was higher, so were PPP assets. $403m in 2008 vs $244m in 2013.
I reckon V is talking EV/EBIT multiple.
Reported EBIT (before non-recurring items) was 33.9 Million.
Current EV is 205 Million.
EV\EBIT = 6.04
Doesn’t make much sense to compare EBIT (which is before interest) to market cap which is price of equity only.
EBIT is a before Interest measure. Depreciation is an accounting charge - potentially misleading if it doesn't corresponded with economically sustainable level of maintenance capex.
A competitive disadvantage deserves a discount to NTA if they reinvest capital into that business then the discount can not be large enough for a long term holder (the real reason I can't be bothered with this sort of investing)
I have 22 years of data over that time and after allowing for growth capex net PPE /Receipts from customers has averaged 3.2%. That would give a normalised maintenance capex on current receipts of 35 Million.
Last years capex was 23 million, dep’n was 37 Million. I would expect that as a major restructure is being undertaken and some of the assets have been migrated to lease liabilities that maintenance capex would come down. At a guess - 20 million maintenance capex + few ?? million lease obligations hot on the heels of the restructure with a longer term degeneration back towards 3% PPE/Receipts. That sort of capital intensity in a low margin competitive industry doesn’t rock my boat but if you can see the leverage working out in your favour over the short term and it fits your plan .... happy investing.
I'll leave it to you now, gotta get back to reading reports of good companies. Timing leveraged turn arounds not my thing.
It is looking very attractive at the moment, with no debt, cash reserves, profitable underlying business, trading at 60% of its NTA. Next year, I'll assume they break even and ignore earnings all together. I will also assume that they will sell their remaining property assets for $70m. This will leave the balance sheet with:
- an extra $70m in cash, taking it to $207m.
- debt reduced by $70m, to just $6m.
- NTA remains the same, or less should they make a loss on sales. But, more of it will be made up of cash, a lot more.
please ignore... I read the report wrong at first. They're on the balance sheet at $110.908m which matches total debt.What about the off-balance sheet finance lease liabilities under note 19?
$123.823m in the next five years. That's about $0.60 a share which to me explains the difference between NTA and the share price.
Happy if someone more experienced can explain how this works... but I assume that is where the difference lies.
Pick it apart, guys.
Another purchase - WTP 2800 @ 0.695.
Market Cap = $128m.
2013 NPAT = -$4.6m.
Without writedowns, a profit of $17.2m
Share price = $0.695
NTA = $1.14
The company is involved in 3 operations:
- construction
- civil and mining
- property
Construction and mining are profitable, property is not. But that is not a problem for much longer, as the company is selling off all of its property assets. Over $100m were sold in 2013, a little under $100m remaining.
Both construction and mining divisions have a strong order book, and with the current financial position of the company, I see no reason to worry about any short/medium term slowdown.
This, however, is an asset play. I am only concerned with assets here. I am looking at earnings only for the margin of safety. Should the company continue making money and pay dividends, that will be a welcome bonus.
It is looking very attractive at the moment, with no debt, cash reserves, profitable underlying business, trading at 60% of its NTA. Next year, I'll assume they break even and ignore earnings all together. I will also assume that they will sell their remaining property assets for $70m. This will leave the balance sheet with:
- an extra $70m in cash, taking it to $207m.
- debt reduced by $70m, to just $6m.
- NTA remains the same, or less should they make a loss on sales. But, more of it will be made up of cash, a lot more.
Which means that Current Assets - Total Liabilities = $115m. Market cap = $114m.
This is what Ben Graham called a Net Net, and it is extremely rare to see for a company with a profitable underlying business. Not a stellar business, and one without a competitive advantage. But profitable nevertheless.
Pick it apart, guys.
P.S. I should talk more about my invest once a month rule. This is now the third time I've bought out of schedule. I've made allowance for special situations, but what does that mean? Basically, it means that I see something trading at less than 50% of my valuation. This doesn't happen often, and I am surprised I got 3 such opportunities in less than 4 months.
Don’t think you are very serious about your stated rules so maybe just disregard.It's far better to buy a wonderful company at a fair price than a fair company at a wonderful price.- Warren Buffett
please ignore... I read the report wrong at first. They're on the balance sheet at $110.908m which matches total debt.
I think the $123m is financial equipment lease commitments + future interest. The principle amount stated in that note of $109m matches the balance sheet and also the first table and second table in note 19.I think you were right the first time looks like there is 123M of lease commitments in addition to the debt.
I think the $123m is financial equipment lease commitments + future interest. The principle amount stated in that note of $109m matches the balance sheet and also the first table and second table in note 19.
I think you were right the first time looks like there is 123M of lease commitments in addition to the debt.
Oh come on...everybody knows WTP is not the next Coca Cola...but it is cheap (or am missing something here?) and there is a probability of a turnaround/takeover (again, am I missing something here?). Position sizing will be important.
I am genuinely interested in learning this art.
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=_7Jq3Y3FceQ
Give me a large position in a quality company with a high probability of long term success any day over a small position in a turnaround that is ‘cheap’ if my maybe assumptions turn out to be correct. Even if I’m right in my business assumptions timing of the repricing becomes a time value of money issue and I have to get out pay tax and repeat to have a decent long term record.
Whether you leave it as cash or pay down debt – selling something that is already in Current Assets as Inventory does nothing to improve your Net-Net position. The current Net-Net position is negative 25m and apart from potentially dragging forward conversion of a bit of Non-current inventory I can’t see the NET-NET position improving much – nowhere near getting to Graham’s definition. And as V said don’t forget the off balance sheet liabilities.
Operating cash flow in 2013 was $155m. However, non-repeatable changes in working capital (including inventories) and tax benefits was $108m. This leaves $47m cash flow from existing operations before taking into account a fair assessment of future maintenance capex. If you consider this requirement then it most likely either negative or barely positive. Co-incidently this was very similar to the total debt repayments.
Working capital deficit funding is still required - so cash on hand & the term deposit (held as security for the debt refer note 19) is not distributable.
Non-current Assets on the balance sheet (to calculate NTA) are based on purchase costs less past impairments. If assets earn a return that is less than the cost of capital then there will be further impairments and no willing buyer will pay for them at balance sheet cost. Where are we at in the cycle and what are the future returns? Profitability is still important - because it dictates whether the assets are worth their replacement cost or should be treated closer to their liquidation value which may be substantially different to the reported NTA.
Hmmm not my kind of company.
I went and had another look (wasting more time on another crap company Hmmm)
I am very sorry, and extremely grateful for your advice here.
I wanted to thank you again for your commentary on my previous purchase of PMP. Some of what you said changed my thinking and I am still thinking of what to do with that.
I know most people interrupt that video as Buffett saying he would look for Graham type investments with small sums but for me the most important point is that he mentions the irony of GEICO . In one of the appendixes of a later edition of intelligent investor Graham also talks about the irony of his investment in GEICO – it’s very informative.
Give me a large position in a quality company with a high probability of long term success any day over a small position in a turnaround that is ‘cheap’ if my maybe assumptions turn out to be correct. Even if I’m right in my business assumptions timing of the repricing becomes a time value of money issue and I have to get out pay tax and repeat to have a decent long term record.
I was just listening to a lecture with Thomas Russo speaking about Buffett's well-known idea of buying a dollar for 50cents. He then goes on to add to that idea...
Paraphrasing his lecture, he states that you'd rather buy the dollar for 60c and have it increase in value over time, than buy it for 50c and have its intrinsic value remain at $1. Not only do you avoid having to constantly find undervalued opportunities, but you avoid having to pay tax each time.
He does add more on the subject, but it's probably better you listen to it yourself:
(http://www.bengrahaminvesting.ca/Resources/audio.htm - by the way, the audio download of Pabrai is also very worthwhile)
I believe this is what Craft is saying and it's a very important point.
Finally on the topic of WTP - I only very briefly looked at the company, but I question the value of those particular assets. 3% margin on its revenue (based on 'underlying' profit) speaks for itself...
And if this is an asset play, there are other questions that arise... It has 238mil net assets - 30mil of that in Intangibles that will essentially be wiped out (although I haven't looked at each segment/entity). Leaves you with 208m and 184m shares (diluted). Factor in that the 'property, plant and equipment' may be overvalued (I don't know the assets well enough) by 30% and you're not far off the current share price...
(There's a section in Security Analysis about asset values that's a great read... if only I could remember which chapter/s)
This is all hypothetical as I don't want to spend too much time on this company, but I would have thought the evidence is clear.
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