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Yes, I had a go at using the Free Cash Flow for companies where they had negative NPATs, but I felt that you really need to use it for all years so that you don't end up comparing apples and oranges, so to speak.
There were a couple of problems with doing this, firstly it is considerably more time-consuming to enter the data (and one of the advantages of the RM formula is it supposed to be quick); Secondly, I still ended up with IV figures that were all over the place.
(What was a significant improvement in reducing the number of spurious PORs of 100% was accounting for the Dividend payments in the year they were earned, not paid. So if you have a big profit and total dividend one year, the dividend doesn't swamp a smaller profit the following year.)
So, yes, the FCFF may be 'better' in some regards, but I'm really interested in working out how best to handle this particular issue (NPAT losses) in Roger's Model; he obviously does handle them but is loath to say how
There were a couple of problems with doing this, firstly it is considerably more time-consuming to enter the data (and one of the advantages of the RM formula is it supposed to be quick); Secondly, I still ended up with IV figures that were all over the place.
(What was a significant improvement in reducing the number of spurious PORs of 100% was accounting for the Dividend payments in the year they were earned, not paid. So if you have a big profit and total dividend one year, the dividend doesn't swamp a smaller profit the following year.)
So, yes, the FCFF may be 'better' in some regards, but I'm really interested in working out how best to handle this particular issue (NPAT losses) in Roger's Model; he obviously does handle them but is loath to say how