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Hello everyone!
I am not sure if this is the correct forum to post in but I am after some urgent information regarding the potential dilution of the potential growth of shares which I have in a company due to its announcement that it plans to sell a 40% stake to foreign investors.
OVERVIEW:
I own 14,000 dollars worth of shares in a company which makes it money by selling seafood from aquacultural sources. I bought my shares at 7.1c per share, and the company has a market capital of 90 million dollars with a total of 1,350,000,000 shares meaning that the market value per share is 6.7c. The company is now massively expanding by building new facilities and has calculated that once their new facilities have been built that their market capital will go up to 1.45 billion ( up from 90 million.) This represents a markep capital ( and ) share price increase of 16 fold.
Recently however, I read an article where the owner of the company said that they plan on selling 40% of the company to investors while still retaining a 60% stake in it for themselves and use the money to fund the remainder of the expansion project.
So I did some research on what happens to the shares of a company when a part of the company is sold, and what I learned was that when a percentage of a company is sold ( in this case 40% ) that what actually happens is that the company creates and issues an additional ( in this case 80% more shares ) such that the original owner still has the exact amount of shares he originally had, but the value of that 40% sale is then added to the market capital of the company. ( In this case the company has 1.35 billion shares so selling 40% of the company means creating an additional 80% of shares which means that the company will then have a total of 2.43 billion shares and a total market capital of 162,000,000 which is up from 90,000,000.) The fact that the purchase value of the 40% stake in the company is then added to the market capital of the company means that the newly issued shares would NOT dilute the existing share values of existing share holders.
THE PART I NEED URGENT HELP WITH:
But what does this mean for the share growth potential? Does this mean that the projected growth of the shares have been diluted by 40% as well ?
For instance in this scenario, in regards to the predicted 16 fold return ( as stated at the beginning of the post, ) doesn't it mean that because the company's market capital has now been raised to 162,000,000 (up 80%) while my share prices are still the same at 7.1c that my sgare growth potential has now been diluted by 40% ? Since the current market capital will now be 162,000,000, to determine the new growth potential simply divide the projected market capital by the existing market capital 1.45 billion / 162 million = 8.78 fold ( down from 16 as mentioned at the beginning.)
Am I right to have made this assumption ? Please only answer if you know, alternately feel free to ask for more information if you need any.
Sincetely,
John
I am not sure if this is the correct forum to post in but I am after some urgent information regarding the potential dilution of the potential growth of shares which I have in a company due to its announcement that it plans to sell a 40% stake to foreign investors.
OVERVIEW:
I own 14,000 dollars worth of shares in a company which makes it money by selling seafood from aquacultural sources. I bought my shares at 7.1c per share, and the company has a market capital of 90 million dollars with a total of 1,350,000,000 shares meaning that the market value per share is 6.7c. The company is now massively expanding by building new facilities and has calculated that once their new facilities have been built that their market capital will go up to 1.45 billion ( up from 90 million.) This represents a markep capital ( and ) share price increase of 16 fold.
Recently however, I read an article where the owner of the company said that they plan on selling 40% of the company to investors while still retaining a 60% stake in it for themselves and use the money to fund the remainder of the expansion project.
So I did some research on what happens to the shares of a company when a part of the company is sold, and what I learned was that when a percentage of a company is sold ( in this case 40% ) that what actually happens is that the company creates and issues an additional ( in this case 80% more shares ) such that the original owner still has the exact amount of shares he originally had, but the value of that 40% sale is then added to the market capital of the company. ( In this case the company has 1.35 billion shares so selling 40% of the company means creating an additional 80% of shares which means that the company will then have a total of 2.43 billion shares and a total market capital of 162,000,000 which is up from 90,000,000.) The fact that the purchase value of the 40% stake in the company is then added to the market capital of the company means that the newly issued shares would NOT dilute the existing share values of existing share holders.
THE PART I NEED URGENT HELP WITH:
But what does this mean for the share growth potential? Does this mean that the projected growth of the shares have been diluted by 40% as well ?
For instance in this scenario, in regards to the predicted 16 fold return ( as stated at the beginning of the post, ) doesn't it mean that because the company's market capital has now been raised to 162,000,000 (up 80%) while my share prices are still the same at 7.1c that my sgare growth potential has now been diluted by 40% ? Since the current market capital will now be 162,000,000, to determine the new growth potential simply divide the projected market capital by the existing market capital 1.45 billion / 162 million = 8.78 fold ( down from 16 as mentioned at the beginning.)
Am I right to have made this assumption ? Please only answer if you know, alternately feel free to ask for more information if you need any.
Sincetely,
John