I'm not sure my question is relevant to the thread but I thought people in this thread would have a thoughtful answer.
In Graham's book, he suggested looking at long term debt to working capital and total debt to net book value (NTA? Are those synonymous?). Net Book Value includes intangibles NTA doesn't.
I'm unsure how to take these metrics into my analyses. The obvious is that low debt is better but what about when the two metrics are very different?
What would having low long term debt to working capital but having high total debt to net assets mean in terms of interpretation? Not sure how this could happen - might be misinterpreting what you mean - got an example?
From my newbie guess, would it mean that they are highly leveraged but are able to manage their debts?
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