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Err what? Noooo. That 205k is now tied up into the house, it's not like homeowner get's that money cash in hand. You want to realise your 10k discount there, you need to sell the house and be in the same position as the renter while assuming the cost of selling is $0.
I understand this, but the article is picking and choosing where it wants to make assumptions based on PCM and perfectly rational investors/savers and when it wants to make assumptions based on 'real world' empirical evidence.
Like sure, it is realistic to assume that there will be transaction costs on liquidation of the asset, 10% of asset value is fair? on a 205k house that only puts the homeowner a touch over 10k behind the renter after 30years based on this guys calcs but this is all the while assuming ZERO capital growth over 30years. Is this realistic aswell?
need to compare apples with apples