Can you explain why you believe valuations are more effective in the 5 year region as you mentioned above ?
I look at Fundamental advisory firms and they try to value companies based on their current balance sheets , then add in the likely EPSG, what contracts they have and how much will be generated going forward etc,etc and based on that analysis will work out the likely share price going forward.
So to me a valuation would be easier working it out every 6 months or so??
“But two years ago we were selling at 10 times revenues when we were at $64. At 10 times revenues, to give you a 10-year payback, I have to pay you 100% of revenues for 10 straight years in dividends. That assumes I can get that by my shareholders. That assumes I have zero cost of goods sold, which is very hard for a computer company. That assumes zero expenses, which is really hard with 39,000 employees. That assumes I pay no taxes, which is very hard. And that assumes you pay no taxes on your dividends, which is kind of illegal. And that assumes with zero R&D for the next 10 years, I can maintain the current revenue run rate. Now, having done that, would any of you like to buy my stock at $64? Do you realize how ridiculous those basic assumptions are? You don’t need any transparency. You don’t need any footnotes. What were you thinking?”
Note that the CEO of the company, with perfect information is operating:
* on a 10 year hypothetical investment duration (not 6 months)
* on a very very simple metric
to try and illustrate the importance of valuations.
This is however an extreme case.
sure at the time it was shared by a high number of other extreme cases.
How does this hold in not so extreme cases?
GMA for example or was $4.40 extreme.
I don't know how you can get remotely accurate
over a 10 yr term with any company that wasn't
in the top 100 even then can be difficult HIH and
the likes.
I've seen studies on Professional recommendation
results over time and those I saw were no better than
any other form of stock selection.
Is there any papers you can direct me to?
Yes that's right. You don't. But the fact that you don't know how it can be done is not really evidence of anything is it?
The goal isn't even to be super accurate. The goal is merely not to overpay for a share in a going concern and then use a fundamental stop loss (i.e. continued analysis of ongoing results) to decide whether or not to remain invested (since you bought into a good business at a good price) or sell out (since the business is no longer good or because the investment has become severely overvalued).
I am not really sure what HIH has to do with anything. My guess is that in 2001 you had an argument on a forum with someone who claimed that HIH was "good value" and you therefore believe that proves empirically that all fundamental analysis is flawed. Or, whatever.
So what? As I'm sure you've seen crappy technical analysis calls and crappy macro calls. What does that prove? When will you stop repeating yourself?
For real? I have posted so many links to value papers in so many threads...I quote sinppets of Hussman value discussion in like every second post...go back and take your pick.
Ill stop repeating myself when exponents of any analysis believe that their analysis on face value is un questionable. That a valuation or a signal is un questionable fact of pending profit.
When people understand you don't need a Doctorate in Economics to profit from the markets or a graduate
of a $20,000 Latest Technical Methodology course---so probably not that soon.
That is not what happened here. Rainman did some FA and was kind enough to share his thoughts. Others who think they know better came to make fun of his buying because of a few down days.
Actually, I won't bother describe what happened next, go back and reread it for yourself to see. My shorthand description would be "goaded into a retards pissing contest".
You forgot to mention every time someone says anything you perceive as negative about a methodology you subscribe to (VSA/EW/tech) regardless of the actual contents or merits of the discussion.
Stick to your knitting, my friend. You're a technical analyst guy. You're not competent to comment on valuation - with respect.
... By the way My comment of Bet Sentiment wins...
Maybe Sinner this is the comment from the Rainman himself that started the **** flying.
I cannot seem to find in the title, ye can only comment if you only apply fundamental analysis to your stock selection.
My comments not long after that where questioning how he came at the evaluation and whether the points he made were valid and correct. F--k me, I thought that what forums where for, discussion.
Funny how people behalf when they are loosing monies.
In the 30 June 2015 results presentation they are claiming to have reinsurance cover of $915 million on their loan book.
I cannot find any details of how this type of cover works in their prospectus or market releases.
Does anyone know how this type of agreement generally works?
Do they pick LMI policies on their books that they consider to be "risky" and pay the re-insurer to cover the entire risk in case of loan default?
The above scenario seems the most likely as I doubt it is a cover-all agreement where the reinsurer agrees to cover the first $915m of losses for any loan defaults.
Thanks mate, I think that helps me figure it out.Generally, it will be non-proportional excess of loss reinsurance, which is just insurance speak for once you reach a level of payout the reinsurer covers the rest. So GMA will have an aggregate limit that they will pay up to in a given period, and then the reinsurer will cover additional loss. It can be measured across the portfolio of insured assets or mortgage to mortgage (I haven't looked so don't know). It's not usually done by passing the whole insurance risk on to the reinsurer (aside from other things that would create some pretty big agency risk for the reinsurer). The liability of the insurance contract is still with the head insurer, not the re.
Another question that I haven't answered yet:
In other words... to me this means that the market is pricing in a large payout. That's how it can trade below book value (in case it wasn't obvious enough). And I found it difficult to fully quantify the probability of such event, and hence determine whether GMA is cheap or not.
Hey SKC,I remember reading something about how, if GMA loses more business, they get to release more excess capital over time. The PV of the stream of excess capital return is worth more than the share price (or something like that). I can't recall which analyst did the numbers but it was around the time when they lost WBC's business.
Definitely worth some research in your analysis of GMA.
In other words... to me this means that the market is pricing in a large payout. That's how it can trade below book value (in case it wasn't obvious enough). And I found it difficult to fully quantify the probability of such event, and hence determine whether GMA is cheap or not.
Another question that I haven't answered yet:
Do WBC (and maybe CBA) see:
a) less risk in the market due to a move away from high LVR loans, so are happy to take the risk internally
b) take the risk internally and potentially use overseas reinsurance firms because it is cheaper than using Genworth / QBE LMI
c) know something about their loan books insured by Genworth that we don't (ie. they are deteriorating quickly) and wish to move all future business away from Genworth because it is becoming less likely that they will be solvent enough to pay the cover out in its entirety?
A combination of any of the three is also possible. Anything I've missed?
edit: I think the fact that Genworth, QBE and a major bank subsidiary make up 90% of the Australian LMI market tells you something about the scale needed to be profitable in this business.
We use cookies and similar technologies for the following purposes:
Do you accept cookies and these technologies?
We use cookies and similar technologies for the following purposes:
Do you accept cookies and these technologies?