Firstly that's not really averaging down, that's a trading plan where the profits are made by paying the 'average' price of the index fund over a year by purchasing in a few lots, with the expectation that the market will continue it's increases.
But if you don't see it that way:
Personally I still see that as being "wrong". If you were right about your analysis than you would be holding your capital and buying into the index funds at times that will start generating you returns as soon as you invest, not tying up your capital in periods of downturns.
Err what? What if I've done a 100 year analysis against the Dow and decided that the start of the quarter is the best time of year to passively invest funds into the index?
Which is in fact why (for example in this trading plan) I waited all quarter to invest my capital?!
Still disagree with you here!
Averaging down, by the very nature of the technique, requires you to purchase additional shares at a price below what you originally paid - therefore you were wrong in your initial analysis and are attempting to compensate by lowering your cost basis and bring it closer to your second entry price (which you are hoping will be correct). The cycle repeats until either your stock hits a bottom and reverses, stagnates or delists.
If your analysis was right in the first place you'd be in the 'black' straight away rather than being in the 'red' and needing to bring your cost basis down.
Ok, not going to bother discussing with you on this one as you've made your mind up exactly what is going on here it seems.
Yes you are still wrong even in this example as you had to purchase on the way down. Put it this way: say you're looking at a fictional stock XYZ - by some divine measure you know for a fact it will go down in the short term. Would you buy this stock and average down? Of course not - you know it's going down so you'd wait and buy it at a cheaper price right? Why on earth would you buy in, knowing it'd go down tomorrow, and then attempt to average down? Nobody would do that of course - but that's what the average down strategy is.
Ok let's take a look at fictional stock XYZ. After declining for 6 months from $1.20 prior to which it had undertaken a 12 month rally, it has established minor support at 60c and major support at 59c.
Do you wait for 59c "of course", according to you. Me, I don't mind buying a little at 60c, as probabilities indicate to me minor support has a good chance of holding without testing major support.
Scenarios that can unplay from here:
1. I am in small at 60c, and you are not. XYZ rallies to $1.20 and the market rewards each of us commensurately for our risk taken.
2. I am in small at 60c, and you are not. The next day XYZ falls to 59c, and I go in with the remaining capital allocated for this trade. Again, the market rewards each of us commensurately for our risk taken.
3. I am in small at 60c, and by 59c we are both in. The next day XYZ closes at 58c and we both get out for a loss.
From my experience in real life, trading EURGBP on a correlation basket basis EURUSD/GBPUSD, EURJPY/GBPJPY, EURCHF/GBPCHF - I would prefer to be shorting or buying before the correlation re-asserts itself! In fact once the correlation has returned the rewards become much much lower. This means the market happily pays me for being, as you put it, "wrong".
I also notice, in similar example to above, in the "ASX Pairs Trading" thread, people are very happy and profitable to short the spread between two instruments after its exceeded 1.5 or 2 std dev of the 14 day mean, and add more if it reaches 2.5 std dev. To make it clear, this is just a plain simple bet that the distribution of the average of the spread is Gaussian or near-Gaussian, and the further it gets away from a normal distribution, the more you average down in your bet that it is a normal distribution!