This may sound an odd request, but is there any issue with sale / repurchase where a capital gain will be generated (as opposed to loss)?
There are various reasons for doing this, including bringing forward capital gains to current year, increasing the cost base, standardising the cost base across multiple purchases of the same stock, generating a gain to offset a capital loss (not from a wash sale situation), either in current year or a carry forward one.
I've read the ruling, but it seems to apply specifically to the scenario of generating a capital loss, and makes no mention of using this technique to generate a capital gain.
There are various reasons for doing this, including bringing forward capital gains to current year, increasing the cost base, standardising the cost base across multiple purchases of the same stock, generating a gain to offset a capital loss (not from a wash sale situation), either in current year or a carry forward one.
I've read the ruling, but it seems to apply specifically to the scenario of generating a capital loss, and makes no mention of using this technique to generate a capital gain.