- Joined
- 24 February 2013
- Posts
- 765
- Reactions
- 1,251
Not everybody uses stop loses. I do not use a stop loss (I have different sell criteria based on fundamentals).
SKC you misunderstood me I meant top 5 positions by weighting in the portfolio. In other words the stocks they (fund managers) invest the most money in (percentage allocation), on average perform the best (compared to other stocks in their own portfolio) because they tend to invest the largest sums of money in their best ideas.
http://www.lazardnet.com/us/docs/sp6/3048/LessIsMore-ACaseForConcentrated_LazardInvestmentFocus.pdf
The above is a link to a study which shows that on average a fund managers top 5 picks outperform their portfolio as a whole.
All good. I made an error in my example by saying that the portfolio is long only. We can relax this given it is a binary process. All the figures actually relate to a full long-short implementation. The point would still stand if you wanted to restrict to long only or, indeed, short only or a mix.What a lot of good discussion.
I am a little confused by DeepState's scenario (in post 107). Is this correct:
Two separate models. One for stock A, the other for stock B. Resulting in two systems -- A and B.
Each system makes a prediction every day. The prediction is the direction for one day holding. A correct prediction -- a winning trade -- returns 1.0%. An incorrect position returns -1.0%. Each is 65% accurate.
The systems and their results are independent -- correlation between them is 0.0.
We need a statement of risk tolerance in order to normalize risk. I use:
We are trading a $100,000 account, forecasting two years. I want to hold the probability of a drawdown greater than 20% to a chance of 5% or less.
No. This is where some confusion seems to arise. In option 2, you are not trading the safe-f allocation of each. You are trading the safe-f allocation of the portfolio consisting of a 50/50 mix of strategies A and B. For whatever definition of risk tolerance you reasonably want, the nominal allocation to this combination of stocks will be greater than the nominal allocation for a single stock alone for any given safe-f. In this example, the nominal allocation to the portfolio of stocks will be about 1.4x the allocation to either A or B alone (option 1). This 1.4x comes about due to portfolio diversification gains. That figure isn't even taking in to account return benefits, only risk [yet more in your favour].Compare two trading management alternatives:
1. Trade A (or B) alone. Each trade will be made using whatever portion of the account is determned by safe-f.
2. Trade both A and B. Profit and loss of both trades are accumulated into a single balance, which is split between the two for the next trade. Each system is trading half the composite account, at the safe-f of each.
This much is straight forward and can be analyzed.
I am confused about the 0.3 correlation mentioned. How does it come into play?
There is statement that risk can be approximated by standard deviation. That fits the frequentist / modern portfolio theory approach.
I prefer the alternative Bayesian approach, where we let the data guide us. That is, form many equally likely trade sequences, compute the final equity and maximum drawdown of each, form the distribution of drawdown, adjust position size to normalize the risk, compute the distribution of final equity, estimate profit potential at the 25th percentile.
Minwa another one of the problems with simplistically looking at the number of stocks I'm your portfolio is that it does not tell you much about diversification by itself. For example if you own a company like Nestle or 3M or Unilever you have exposure to a huge number of product lines, countries and potentially currencies. However somebody that buys a Greek stock market index gets exposed mostly to the problems of the Greek economy. If you buy an Australian index fund you get mainly exposure to banks and resources and the Australian dollar. If you buy Berkshire Hathaway you get exposure to well managed companies across a huge range of industries.
Would you agree that owning shares in Washington H.Soul Pattinson gives you more diversification than owning Telstra and TPG telecom?
Hi VHMinwa owning an index fund (or 20 individual stocks, etc) does not eliminate the possibility of a big move against you as would have occurred in 2008.
- Deep state my essential issue is against the middle ground which is the worst of both worlds. If an investor lacks skill and wants to own index funds that is a prudent decision. If an investor has skill and wants to own 5 individual stocks that is all well and good also. What I disagree with (unless its a mechanical approach) is a fund manager or individual that owns a diversified portfolio with no more than say10% in any single holding and owns say 20-30 stocks. This person should either throw in the towel and buy index funds or trim their portfolio to a maximum of say 4-8 positions. Now I understand some fund managers have too much money too manage and due to size constraints must diversify, but for small funds and individuals I think concentration is the answer.
Deep state as I stated before in my own stock portfolio (stocks make up around 30% of my total gross assets but I am highly leveraged) one stock is over 95% of the stock allocation. Due to portfolio leverage(no margin loans though) if that stock goes to zero 80% of my net assets (my life savings and a six figure sum which is meaningful to me) will be wiped out. I mangage risk not by diversifying but by:
A) Having a long term horizon and being agnostic of drawdowns (unless the value of the business is permanently impaired)
B) Having strong knowledge of the company
C) Choosing a company with a strong balance sheet, strong earnings track record, good management and a bright future (my own subjective assessment) with diversified earnings streams
D) monitoring the company. If the quality of the business ever detiorates I will likely sell.
I still maintain that somebody holding a portfolio of six speccy stocks to me is taking more risk than someone who has 100% invested in a company like Kraft or Unilever or Nestle or 3M.
Diversification is one tool in the toolbox that can be used to manage risk. Other factors such as the ones I stated above are other tools. There are many risk management tools with diversification just being one such tool which is useful in some cases but not the right tool in others.
Is the stock you refer too as representing over 80% of your net worth CCP?Deep state as I stated before in my own stock portfolio (stocks make up around 30% of my total gross assets but I am highly leveraged) one stock is over 95% of the stock allocation. Due to portfolio leverage(no margin loans though) if that stock goes to zero 80% of my net assets (my life savings and a six figure sum which is meaningful to me) will be wiped out. I mangage risk not by diversifying but by:
A) Having a long term horizon and being agnostic of drawdowns (unless the value of the business is permanently impaired)
B) Having strong knowledge of the company
C) Choosing a company with a strong balance sheet, strong earnings track record, good management and a bright future (my own subjective assessment) with diversified earnings streams
D) monitoring the company. If the quality of the business ever detiorates I will likely sell.
I still maintain that somebody holding a portfolio of six speccy stocks to me is taking more risk than someone who has 100% invested in a company like Kraft or Unilever or Nestle or 3M.
Diversification is one tool in the toolbox that can be used to manage risk. Other factors such as the ones I stated above are other tools as are things like stop losses (which I do not use). There are many risk management tools with diversification just being one such tool which is useful in some cases but not the right tool in others.
Deepstate I think you need to define what you consider risk. I agree with Warren Buffet that risk is the probability of a permanent loss of capital (as opposed to say beta, drawdown, etc). In my methodology risk is to a large extent qualitative and not measurable in a strict numerical sense and rather can be described in a broad manner. Given that is the case how would you define or measure "maximum reward for risk"?
The way I look at is adequacy rather than maximisation. Is the reward adequate for the risk I am taking? Due to having imperfect information and dealing with things which are subjective and difficult to measure I do not think I can be more precise than that. I think maximising is an unrealistic goal.
Hello and welcome to Aussie Stock Forums!
To gain full access you must register. Registration is free and takes only a few seconds to complete.
Already a member? Log in here.