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What has it found. What figures have you been able to extrapolate?
How are they used?
What then do you do with this information and how does it effect your trading?
Im also interested in what it is you actually derive that then gives you a measure of RISK.What are you determining?
How many individual securities make up the list which you have studied?
Where do you get Fundamental Data back over 100 yrs?
Where do you store it?
Im also interested in what it is you actually derive that then gives you a measure of RISK.What are you determining?
Consult your bookshelf to let us know about hedging a portfolio. This is important.
My *risk* is (amongst others) business, or credit risk
Market risk, or volatility is irrelevant as a metric of risk to my methodology.
Therefore there is no requirement for a stoploss as a risk management tool.
A change in the fundamentals is a trigger for an exit, and a time based exit, at 3yrs. Either one will trigger an exit. With regards to a %measure of my risk, there isn't one in the same context that you advocate, my exit may be triggered at a 10% loss, or a 90% loss, which requires a very high success rate to mitigate risk, and fairly broad diversification.
My backtested results suggest a 95% success rate or winning percentage.
Again the highest I have seen,truely amazing.The average return per winning trade is 87.5%
The average loss is 25%
Once you play with the figures over a variety of time based exits, and any losses, with the winning trades, you would return 30% compounded.
A stoploss (excluding the CFD guaranteed stoploss) is not definitive of your risk.........a successful exit at the stop price is definitive of your risk
The two methodologies are just night and day.
This is why when people talk about mixing and matching Fundamentals with Technicals to create some form of superior hybrid, they are just asking for problems as the definition of risk, the quantification of risk, and the management of risk are just so different as to be for all intents and purposes incompatible.
Its definative of INITIAL Risk.It will limit the maximum loss on initial capital to the value assigned.Loss from highest high to exit is drawdown from maximum profit within anyone trade,thats nothing to do with initial stop losses.
ducati916 said:Snake
Ok, nice basic one.
This will not go into detail, but will outline the methodology.
Find an overvalued common stock.
Find one that also has a convertible bond or preferred stock as part of the capitalization.
Buy the bond long.
Sell the common short at parity, or +ve spread.
Convertible needs to be relatively close to investment value.
Wait for the common to fall.
When it falls, it will usually fall further and faster than the convertible.
If this happens, buy back the common, and sell the bond.
If nothing happens, convert the convertible into common to close the trade at breakeven, less brokerage, + any dividends or interest you accrue.
There are others, but see how that one sits with you first.
jog on
d998
my exit may be triggered at a 10% loss, or a 90% loss, which requires a very high success rate to mitigate risk, and fairly broad diversification
Quantification of risk model
Deterministic.
This is no different to ranking,you have not determined risk rather you have ranked it.Risk being uncertainty--then the uncertainty remains.
Infact it also requires a very high reward to risk .
If a $10 stock loses $9 then the remaining stock valued at $1 needs to increase by 1000% to just return to break even. People lose sight of this when they hold a stock which continues to decline. Infact it becomes rediculous when you consider that your expecting a stock which is underperforming (To get itself in negative) to then outperform by massive amounts.
Total Risk = Controlled risk - Uncontrolled risk
With the reward component following a similar balancing calculation.
Viz. a fully controlled reward will fall at the lower band, with highly speculative reward falling in the upper bands.
In a way you could call it that. You are ranking low risk, against high risk, and loading your portfolio with low risk selections.
Through analysis you have determined that your stock selection is undervalued, and represents a bargain, thus it ranks as low risk.
Through *backtesting* the undervalued stock selections (or your ranking methodology) as a strategy have been tested to see how successful it has been. This generates the first number.........%winning trades and %losing trades.
From there, we look at the aggregate %return of the winning trades, and the aggregate %loss of the losing trades.
Lastly I look at the timeframe that these results have been generated in.
If the annual compounding rate is high enough to compensate for the total risk, where total risk = controlled risk - uncontrolled risk then I would assume the strategy.
Business, or operating risk, is very different to market risk.
Technical analysis, which trades market risk, is an extremely lagging form of analysis and therefore must follow the herd, and assume the herd knows what it is doing, this is the underlying theory that underpins Efficient Market theory thus the risk management tool utilized must fully control risk, viz. if risk = uncertainity, then uncertainity must be converted to certainity.
ducati916 said:Business, or operating risk, is very different to market risk.
Technical analysis, which trades market risk, is an extremely lagging form of analysis and therefore must follow the herd, and assume the herd knows what it is doing, this is the underlying theory that underpins Efficient Market theory thus the risk management tool utilized must fully control risk, viz. if risk = uncertainity, then uncertainity must be converted to certainity. This is the purpose of a stoploss,......a stoploss = 100% loss, therefore, there is no uncertainity, there is no risk.
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