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What are other's thoughts?
Thanks McLovin - I think it is a case of organic cashflow growth within a franchise which has the potential for excessive returns of ROIC vs acquisitions for the sake of "profit growth" (which are either dilutive or value neutral) and should not be treated in in a DCF calculation as achieving anything but growth at a rate equal to the firm's cost of capital going forward.I'm pretty simple with these sort of things and just leave the goodwill in. The way I see it, it's where the growth comes from. I guess the way I see it is goodwill on the balance sheet represents historic decisions but if the business plan is to grow through acquisition then the goodwill associated with those acquisitions should be included when measuring performance.
I actually think you could probably amortise goodwill associated with these sort of "people businesses". In many of the companies being acquired there is real key man risk and any moat is around a few individuals (usually the founders) rather than the company.
Thanks McLovin - I think it is a case of organic cashflow growth within a franchise which has the potential for excessive returns of ROIC vs acquisitions for the sake of "profit growth" (which are either dilutive or value neutral) and should not be treated in in a DCF calculation as achieving anything but growth at a rate equal to the firm's cost of capital going forward.
In essence it becomes a question of whether the company and any of the businesses it has been acquiring are truly scalable beyond the initial cashflow stream of their acquisition. I think there is a big difference in the cashflow profile going forward of something like RFG and the two I mentioned SAI and SGN (at least as far as the historic trend evidence to this point in time would indicate).
Craft - I replied to your PM.
Question about ROIC. Generally I take out goodwill (and most other intangibles from this equation - and adjust the EBIT for them if need be) from these calculations.
However, a lot of people businesses are not truly scalable. Advertising / marketing firms, compliance firms, some IT firms etc are good examples. Organic growth is limited so you often find that they have large amounts of goodwill on the balance sheet and in most cases this will continue to grow.
SAI and SGN have been good examples of this over the last decade. Excess capital and / or debt is generally used to fund acquisitions that will hopefully grow earnings. Say ROIC was 25% (EBIT / (Total assets - excess cash - intangible assets - non-interest bearing liabilities (creditors etc.)). This is not uncommon I have found. However, if you leave historic Goodwill in this equation the result is closer to the cost of capital, somewhere around 8-12%.
To me it makes more sense that capital employed going forward in businesses with limited organic growth potential, that grow via acquisition, will achieve returns closer the 8-12% on any invested free cash flow. Interesting to point out that a lot of acquisitions are made at EBIT multiples of 5-8 times.
Implied growth with ROIC 25% and 25% retained earnings is 6.25%.
Implied growth with ROIC 10% and 25% retained earnings is 2.5%.
Certainly makes a big difference on a long-range DCF calculation!
What are other's thoughts?
This is gold - I tried to say something similar, but I lack some of the necessary understanding to successfully convey it into such fine words at this point!You need to make assumptions about the future – will it replicate the past? Is their ROIC protected by a competitive advantage or will it decay under competitive forces. Will they stop acquiring new enterprises and instead only invest in the higher return but smaller pool of organic growth and pay down debt and/or make net distributions to equity holders? Has the previous enterprise purchases increased the future organic growth opportunities. You need these assumptions about the future before you can allocate growth to the different return rates that apply to different ways of utilising discretionary cash flows.
Hi craft - thanks for all the effort you put into the calcs. I calculated between 50-60% ROIC for SAI (without bothering to go into it in any depth) - which isn't too far off what you have come up.
Implied growth with ROIC 60% and 20% retained earnings is 12%.
Implied growth with ROIC 10% and 20% retained earnings is 2%.
Are you talking about the calculation of the retention rate? And yes, I agree financial leverage that doesn't cost a cent is always desirable if it is backed by sustainable cashflow.Be careful with this calc - it will tell you that a negative working capital business (generally a desired business model) has no growth potential - seems to be a common fallacy.
I think I can see what you are referring to craft - businesses that can afford to payout a very high proportion of their earnings because they source funding for new investment from constantly expanding negative working capital balances.
Wouldn't you pick this up though if you used Retention ratio as function of earnings / cashflow less maintenance capex and change in working capital funding (obviously this is added back if negative)?
I agreeing with you - but also saying that the "retention ratio" of these businesses needs to be modified - if a business such as NVT receives income in advance of earning it and can use this to fund growth - then their cashflow profile is telling me that there is some retention occuring, regardless of whether the earnings show it.I’m trying to say that your implied growth rate calculation will lead to an incorrect assumption for companies like NVT which can pay out all Discretionary Cash Flow and still fund growth.
Your formula would say ROIC xx% multiplied by 0% retained = zero growth.
I agreeing with you - but also saying that the "retention ratio" of these businesses needs to be modified - if a business such as NVT receives income in advance of earning it and can use this to fund growth - then their cashflow profile is telling me that there is some retention occuring, regardless of whether the earnings show it.
I'm sure Damodaran has a formula to calculate this somewhere. It involves adjusting earnings for maintenance capex and working capital.
If a firm has negative working capital then their real earnings would increase over what is actually reported - so the payout ratio is less than 100% and the retention ratio is more than 0%.
I think we are on the same page.
There is no retention of earned income and no retention of equity.
However, on a cash basis there is retention – the balance sheet expandeds with other peoples interest free money.
Are we on the same page?
$100 paid out divided by $120 real earnings is 83.333% payout. If ROIC is 40% then implied growth is 6.7% p.a. The equity line hides this as you alluded to above.
This one has always puzzled me - so I know why you ask. The company presentations say 60% for 2010. It isn't explicity stated any where, but I believe that this is in after-tax terms.What is NVT’s ROIC (ex goodwill)?
Now for the interesting part - this figure also does not offset the unearned income in the liabilities section. If you substract this from the net assets employed the end result is that they have negative assets employed. They are effectively borrowing assets off others interest-free and using them to generate very high rates of return.
Be careful with this calc - it will tell you that a negative working capital business (generally a desired business model) has no growth potential - seems to be a common fallacy.
Point taken. What metrics do you model for NVT then? Revenue growth and margins as a product of student growth?That’s the point. Any return on negative operational invested capital gives a negative ROIC. How do you apply the implied growth formula to a negative ROIC?
Thats why I said
ps
Don't get me started with my full list of peeves about the calculation and how it is used and abused.
Sorry for grave-digging old posts, but would it be possible for you to elaborate on how you arrive at the multiple of tangible assets for perpetuity calculations that have a sustainable competitive advantage?I prefer to discount only the cash flow horizon I can have some certainty about and then calculate a terminal value based on the replacement cost of tangible assets and possible some multiple of that if the business has a true sustainable competitive advantage.
Sorry for grave-digging old posts, but would it be possible for you to elaborate on how you arrive at the multiple of tangible assets for perpetuity calculations that have a sustainable competitive advantage?
Is there a mathematical method involved? My thoughts are that the multiple must be higher when the business has higher ROIC compared to lower ROIC.
Thanks I will have to start reading through his site some more - there is so much stuff on it that I can imagine one could use a lot of different methods to combine and shape their own principles and rules (granted that they pass logic of course!).I consider the excess return [investment return – cost of capital]
The amount of capital that can be invested at the excess return rates
And how sustainable is the competitive advantage to maintain the excess return over time.
I then use my much beloved SWAG method to determine the multiple.
The maths is so sensitive to the variables that any precision is illusionary; nonetheless my guesses are grounded on the math.
As per usual my favourite source for valuation maths is Aswath Damodaran.
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