- Joined
- 22 August 2008
- Posts
- 914
- Reactions
- 20
Sir O: THANKYOU, and also I love you and want to seks you up.
The basic trend stuff you posted on the 7th has really helped. Funny how you can keep seeing the edge of something that everyone else knows and never quite get it until someone stops and uses small words.
LH HH LL HL .... ahhhh. At last you guys make sense.
PS:
Re: the bolded bit - is this necessarily the case when the close is lower, is it something you get from the data shown here, or is it something you have to read off the volume graph that's not shown above?
Hi All,
Let me make this point clear. ANYONE can retire very comfortable. It doesn't matter what your income level is, your level of education, whether you went to a private school or any other factors - all it takes to become financially independent is 1) Self Discipline and 2) A small amount of Knowledge.
The average Australian will earn approximately 1.8 million dollars during an average working life. For every Australian working today 8% will become "Financially Independent" when they retire. (we'll talk about this definition in a second). Out of 100 people aged 15 today, by the age of 65
38 will be deceased
38 will be living in poverty
16 will still be working
7 will be retired on a livable income
and 1 will be wealthy.
The way that the ABS (Australian Bureau of Statistics) defines "Livable income"? - In retirement your income is 60% or greater of your last year's pay. "Wealthy" is defined as your retirement income is greater than 80% of your last years pay. Yet with just a small amount of information and self discipline - those numbers could be MUCH better.
Sir O[/B]
Just a general question here.
If some1 from Mel wanted to call me using her landline/moblie to my moblie, does she have to include like QLD area code 07 in front of my moblie or just go 04xxxxxxxx .
Hi,
I am very new to this and still very much in the early days of learning about shares (try first month).
Anyways my stupid question is:
What is the significance of a price rise on low volumes? Does it mean anything different to a price rise on high volumes?
Cheers,
Todd
Sorry, I know this question is from a million years ago but I cannot work out what PPR means on the second page.
It isnt defined anywhere in the first few pages and it isnt in the Acronyms thread. Also there are 65 Acronym matches if I google it and even then I cant see a relevant one. Can someone please spill the beans?
Thanks
Sorry, I know this question is from a million years ago but I cannot work out what PPR means on the second page.
It isnt defined anywhere in the first few pages and it isnt in the Acronyms thread. Also there are 65 Acronym matches if I google it and even then I cant see a relevant one. Can someone please spill the beans?
Thanks
Sorry, I know this question is from a million years ago but I cannot work out what PPR means on the second page.
It isnt defined anywhere in the first few pages and it isnt in the Acronyms thread. Also there are 65 Acronym matches if I google it and even then I cant see a relevant one. Can someone please spill the beans?
Thanks
Let’s say you have a significant asset with a low LVR (This could be your PPR or an investment property for example). Currently the bank loves you - they get to use your asset and make lots of money from you by using the currently unused security value of your asset.
You would be MUCH better off if instead of the bank using that security value - you yourself use it. But how do we use it effectively so as not to endanger the viability of the asset?
In the case of a PPR (principle place of residence) there are a couple of important things you need to consider.
Sir O,
I have recently begun trading and have been following a report with my father (Which has had quite good success), and I have followed this person into an option which is up now on when I bought it (Thankfully).
But, I was wondering what the hell I have done and what it means..... Also if I choose to execute it; a) How would I go about it and, b) when would be a good time to execute if at all?
The option is as follows:
This was on offer to existing shareholders on a 1 for 1 basis to acquire 1 option in the Company at a price of 1 cent. The option gave the holder the right to convert the option into a share by paying a further 3 cents at any time up to 29 June 2010.
I know this seems very self explanitory but I may be reading too much into it.
Any explanation would be appreciated,
Matt
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