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In The Australian today it said that people who had made offmarket sales had to check that the people they were selling to were bona fide purchasers and if they could not afford the liability of the instalments, then this could revert to the original owner. (I think it was Michael Walshe) Yet here is Mac with its own shelf company..
What I don't get is - why is it ok to sell the stock on market to purchasers that can't afford to pay the liability, but not ok to sell it off market to purchasers that can't afford to pay? So its actually ok to perform dodgy transactions as long as its done via the ASX?
Well at least some holders managed to get out. 8% out of 83%, that's almost 10% of the shares held by retail.
In the AFR today it said that Jim Byrnes will be seeking an injunction on some of the sales from yesterday, as they were already contracted to who he is working for, but the people had not taken the units out of the queue.
Lawyers must be loving it, there are about 3 cases running concurrently and more to come by the looks
Just when you think there is a plan afoot, something from left field happens. So were these shares actually transferred to Jim, or was that just 'in train'; which was why they were 'left' in the queue; and if 'left in the queue' dont they have a counter obligation to actually have them available for sale? Which means they must now buy some in order to satisfy the conditions of the contract?
All i know is that the lawyers will be laughing all the way to the bank. Im not willing to comment on contract law in a case like this cause who knows what will happen.
According to the AFR article there was already a 'contract' to buy some of the shares from JB's client offmarket, so if that contract is held up Mac Banks purchases may be invalide. Or as you suggest P, those who are supposed to supply JB may need to buy more...
If someone signed a contract to sell their shares off market but also subsequently sold them on-market then they are technically short selling in the latter trade aren't they?
If the ASX had suspended trading of this stock a long time ago this would all have been made a lot easier - or alternately allow stocks to trade for .001 of a cent instead of just .1 of a cent.
What I don't get is - why is it ok to sell the stock on market to purchasers that can't afford to pay the liability, but not ok to sell it off market to purchasers that can't afford to pay?
then you really do have to question your intent in selling him the shares.
Macquarie can top up from what's left for sale on the ASX if any of it's purchases are invalidated.All i know is that the lawyers will be laughing all the way to the bank. Im not willing to comment on contract law in a case like this cause who knows what will happen.
According to the AFR article there was already a 'contract' to buy some of the shares from JB's client offmarket, so if that contract is held up Mac Banks purchases may be invalide. Or as you suggest P, those who are supposed to supply JB may need to buy more...
Any part of the upcoming instalment they get from current shareholders is an amount they don't have to contribute themselves. In the current market they would then be in a position to offer a buyback to paying shareholders at a discount (if desired) thereby acquiring those units at a lower overall cost.I am still at a loss why Macquarie doesn't buy BCSCA up at a massive discount so that they own it all, stump up the cash for the next two installments which they underwrote anyway, and let the thing get built, and roll it into another of their funds until the asset has real value.
They could then sell it off to another fund later on, or possibly even re-float it. I suspect a bit of short-term pain would eventual make a gain for their fundholders.
One's an arms length transaction, the other is not.
I'm not sure why this is so hard for some people to understand? The law looks at both intent and action. When you make a dodgy looking off market transfer to someone who has stood up in the news and said "I don't have 93 million dollars" (or however big it is), then you really do have to question your intent in selling him the shares.
Just because the transaction isn't done on the ASX doesn't mean its not an arms length transaction.
However, when you know the intent the purchaser has, it's no longer arms length.
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