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I've just sold a portion of a few stocks that are around double what I entered so I can retain the initial capital outlay and ride the profits.
Since this is my first financial year of trading I have yet to deal with CGT.
My question is: Is the CGT applied on a per share basis or on a per trade basis?
For example(ignoring trade costs) here are two versions that I can see, which one is more correct?
1) per share:
buy 100 @ $1 = $100
sell 50 @ $2 = $100
CGT = $50
2) per trade:
buy 100 @ $1 = $100
sell 50 @ $2 = $100
CGT = $0
One other thing, how does the fact I have previously averaged down on a couple of shares affect things? Is my cost base simply the averaged price?
And which buy date is used for CGT timing? Is it the original buy date or the last averaged down date?
cheers
Since this is my first financial year of trading I have yet to deal with CGT.
My question is: Is the CGT applied on a per share basis or on a per trade basis?
For example(ignoring trade costs) here are two versions that I can see, which one is more correct?
1) per share:
buy 100 @ $1 = $100
sell 50 @ $2 = $100
CGT = $50
2) per trade:
buy 100 @ $1 = $100
sell 50 @ $2 = $100
CGT = $0
One other thing, how does the fact I have previously averaged down on a couple of shares affect things? Is my cost base simply the averaged price?
And which buy date is used for CGT timing? Is it the original buy date or the last averaged down date?
cheers