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- 16 June 2005
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So true, Mag! I have attempted to answer this a couple of times, however, time constraints (due to the early arrival of a baby granddaughter on Sun night) plus realising an answer was going to be lengthy, the replies never got completed.Magdoran said:...Your question appears deceptively simple, but underpinning answers to this question is a labyrinth of complexity (kind of like the iceberg below the water)...
My view on this is that it should not be viewed as a "spread" per se'. Rather, I use historical volatility as a "tool" , along with my best "guess" of future volatility, to evaluate the the current (implied) volatility as to whether the price is "fair" and where the greek risks are.ducati916 said:This is the interesting area for myself.
Should you therefore calculate the two volatilities, the current volatility, the one you are going to pay for today, and the historical volatility to illustrate the volatility *spread*.
ducati916 said:Does the volatility crush comes into effect if [as in your example] the common has been trending up, then corrects, falling for say three days, resulting in an increase in volatility [and increased possibly against historical volatility] then, with the end of the reversal, and the common trading higher, the option reverts to a lower implied volatility?
My view on this is that it should not be viewed as a "spread" per se'. Rather, I use historical volatility as a "tool" , along with my best "guess" of future volatility, to evaluate the the current (implied) volatility as to whether the price is "fair" and where the greek risks are.
ducati916 said:enzo
Just watching the prices currently of ticker ANF, and the common that was trading yesterday at $66.91 is today trading @ $68.51
Option greeks @ $66.91 on a Call Price = $0.40 [ask] which was Fair Value.
*delta 8.8%
*gamma 1.5%
*vega 0.047
*theta -0.014
*rho 0.010
Option greeks @ $68.51 on same Call Price = $0.25 [bid] $0.30 [ask] while Fair Value as calculated should be [Ask] $0.57
*delta 11.4%
*gamma 1.7%
*vega 0.057
*theta -0.017
*rho 0.013
So in your opinion, what exactly do you think is occurring here?
jog on
d998
An options price yeilds an "implied volatility", and not the other way around. People often say that one option has a higher premium because the IV is higher (ceteris paribus). This is backwards. The IV is higher because the premium under the same conditions is higher. That is why it is called "implied" volatility. It is what the future volatility must be (given the time left till expiry) to justify the current market price of a given option.
Current market sentiment determines a given option's value and the IV is the result. The price of the underlying and time till expiry are not debatable, they are fact. Thus to justify a higher market price you also need to "imply" a higher volatility, or greater chance that the option will expiry in the money.
Hello Duc,ducati916 said:Mag's baby!
This is the interesting area for myself.
Should you therefore calculate the two volatilities, the current volatility, the one you are going to pay for today, and the historical volatility to illustrate the volatility *spread*.
Does the volatility crush comes into effect if [as in your example] the common has been trending up, then corrects, falling for say three days, resulting in an increase in volatility [and increased possibly against historical volatility] then, with the end of the reversal, and the common trading higher, the option reverts to a lower implied volatility?
Interested in your response.
jog on
d998
Hello Margaret!sails said:So true, Mag! I have attempted to answer this a couple of times, however, time constraints (due to the early arrival of a baby granddaughter on Sun night) plus realising an answer was going to be lengthy, the replies never got completed.
Just quick speed reads of ASF is about all I have time for now - will hopefully be able to add to the thread when more time becomes available.
Yup, that’s about the way I look at it too, subtle difference in mindset, but yields quite a different way of looking at the game.ducati916 said:enzo
Found this on another thread that you populate;
Quite straight forward really, embarrassingly so, but solves my little problem quite nicely......now I can identify *potentially undervalued options*in a very logical manner.
jog on
d998
An options price yeilds an "implied volatility", and not the other way around. People often say that one option has a higher premium because the IV is higher (ceteris paribus). This is backwards. The IV is higher because the premium under the same conditions is higher. That is why it is called "implied" volatility. It is what the future volatility must be (given the time left till expiry) to justify the current market price of a given option.
Current market sentiment determines a given option's value and the IV is the result. The price of the underlying and time till expiry are not debatable, they are fact. Thus to justify a higher market price you also need to "imply" a higher volatility, or greater chance that the option will expiry in the money.
ducati916 said:enzo
Just watching the prices currently of ticker ANF, and the common that was trading yesterday at $66.91 is today trading @ $68.51
Option greeks @ $66.91 on a Call Price = $0.40 [ask] which was Fair Value.
*delta 8.8%
*gamma 1.5%
*vega 0.047
*theta -0.014
*rho 0.010
Option greeks @ $68.51 on same Call Price = $0.25 [bid] $0.30 [ask] while Fair Value as calculated should be [Ask] $0.57
*delta 11.4%
*gamma 1.7%
*vega 0.057
*theta -0.017
*rho 0.013
So in your opinion, what exactly do you think is occurring here?
jog on
d998
Lismore said:Hey Guys
Thanks for the responses.
Am still in the learning/paper trading stage so have plenty to learn.
Cheers
Hello Duc,ducati916 said:Mag's baby!
This is the interesting area for myself.
Should you therefore calculate the two volatilities, the current volatility, the one you are going to pay for today, and the historical volatility to illustrate the volatility *spread*.
Does the volatility crush comes into effect if [as in your example] the common has been trending up, then corrects, falling for say three days, resulting in an increase in volatility [and increased possibly against historical volatility] then, with the end of the reversal, and the common trading higher, the option reverts to a lower implied volatility?
Interested in your response.
jog on
d998
I would love to find out if someone, somewhere in the trading universe (initially at least) inputs volatility to get the output price.
MM's I have listened to say no, that outside bids/asks determine the vols. It seems like a bit of a chicken or egg thing to me.
potato said:hey guys
in regards to the asx, whats happens when an option expires ITM? does it expire worthless if u dont close it out, or is the intrinsic value of the option settled automatically?
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