Looking for some insights guys in understanding how you go about calculating the IV for a stock.
The modified Graham IV for a growth stock is the following:
IV= [EPS x (8.5+2g) x 4.4]/Y
Where g is the growth rate and Y the risk free rate. In the formula Graham uses 8.5 for a no growth stock. 4.4 was the yield on a triple A corporate bond when Graham was active.
Running this formula on a couple of stocks I hold I'm getting some implausibly high IVs.
Doing a bit more digging I see some investors think the formula is too aggressive for the stock market today. They use 1g instead of 2g and replace the 8.5 to 7.
I guess what I really want to understand is the underlying logic of the formula. Firstly, why is a p/e of 8.5 the number for a hypothetical stock that does not grow? Secondly, how is the growth rate multiplied by 2 telling you anything meaningful?
Lastly I see many people keep the 4.4 in the formula today as a required rate of return when the risk free rate today is lower than when Graham was operating.
Thanks
The modified Graham IV for a growth stock is the following:
IV= [EPS x (8.5+2g) x 4.4]/Y
Where g is the growth rate and Y the risk free rate. In the formula Graham uses 8.5 for a no growth stock. 4.4 was the yield on a triple A corporate bond when Graham was active.
Running this formula on a couple of stocks I hold I'm getting some implausibly high IVs.
Doing a bit more digging I see some investors think the formula is too aggressive for the stock market today. They use 1g instead of 2g and replace the 8.5 to 7.
I guess what I really want to understand is the underlying logic of the formula. Firstly, why is a p/e of 8.5 the number for a hypothetical stock that does not grow? Secondly, how is the growth rate multiplied by 2 telling you anything meaningful?
Lastly I see many people keep the 4.4 in the formula today as a required rate of return when the risk free rate today is lower than when Graham was operating.
Thanks